Question

- the Collatz's conjecture say that if we have one number even - for example 12 - need divide with 2 , result 6 what is even too so divide with 2,result 3 what is odd - so than we multiply this 3 with 3 what is 9 and to this 9 we add 1 what is 10 ,ten is even so we divide it with 2 what is 5 ,what is odd , than multiplie with 3 and add to this 1 - we get 16 what is even , divide with 2 what is 8 - is even divide with 2 equal 4 what is even divide with 2 equal 2 what is even divide with 2 equal 1 - always we get in this way like final result 1 - ---- this is very very nice but why is this impo

Answer 1

- so why is this important in this way when we can getting this result 1 if we make in case with odd numbers without multiplication with 3
- for example if we have 13 add to this 1 equal 14 divide with 2 equal 7 add to this 1 equal 8 what is even so divide with 2 equal 4 what is even so divide with 2 equal 2 what is even divide with 2 equal 1
- how you think please not is hence understandably better without multiplie the odd numbers with 3 and after adding to this 1 ?

Answer 2

- someone opinion ???