Question

let f(x) have an inverse function g(x). then f(g(x)) =
a. 1
b. x
c. 1/x
d. f(x) times g(x)
e. none of these

Answer 1

b

Answer 2

Since g(x) is inside f(x), it just means g(x) is inside the inverse of g(x). Since they're just inverses of one another, you can cancel them out, and you're only left with x.