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f is 1-1, if f(x) is odd, is f(inverse)(x) also odd
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of course. you need a proof?
yes i do
that's what i hate- proving obvious things
true that
\[f(x)=y\iff f^{-1}(y)=x\] so if \[y=f(x)\] then \[f^{-1}(-y)=f^{-1}(-f(x))=f^{-1}(f(-x))=-x=-f(y)\]
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o ok. thx a lot
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