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OpenStudy (anonymous):
why is the asymptote of f(x)=x/(x-1) x=1 y=1?
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
b/c if you plug in x=1 into the eq u get 1/(1-1) which is 1/0 which means that it does not exist at that point, y can never equal one due to the limitations of the eq.
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