Physics 24 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Well, why is the electric field inside a conducting sphere equal to zero?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

electrons tend to repel each other, and while they are in conducting sphere, they are free to move, so when the repel each other, to push each other to the surface of the sphere. in isolating sphere, like rubber ball, if it is charged somehow (possible), the electrons are stuck in their position and aren't free to move, so the whole volum of the sphere has charge (or electrons)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

based on that, when all electrons in conducting sphere push each other to the surface, there is no charge left inside the sphere, so when charge inside sphere = 0, no E field

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Alright, can't this be a reason that the electric fields of all charges are in opposite direction and so they cancel out each other's electric fields to leave 0 electric field inside the sphere?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

true, but it is easier to work with formula if you just accept there isn't charge inside the sphere and thus e=0

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Hmm, many thanks. :)

OpenStudy (anonymous):

if you remember: $EAcos\theta=Q_s/\epsilon$ rearrange the equation for E, A is the area of the surface of the sphere, and Q is the charge distrebution Qs=Q/A if you saw the charge inclosed in the surface is 0, then E = 0

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Thanks again - this all makes sense. . .

OpenStudy (anonymous):

click -> "Good Answer" to give a medal :)

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