Question

when you differentiate for example 1/x are the top terms of the quotient rule inter changable?

Answer 1

No, it has to be (the derivative of the top times the bottom) minus (the top times the derivative of the bottom).

Answer 2

I always just used the product rule. Never bothered with the quotient rule. You can rewrite the quotient rule as the product rule and deal with stuff that way. I think it's conceptually easier to do and easier to derive if you forget where it comes from.

Answer 3

ok got it. thank you very much for clearing that up