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can someone pls help me with this question >> A health information management professional reads the following statement in a journal article: "in a sample of 823 clerical workers a significant relationship was found between their scores on the XYZ clercal aptitude test and their job performance ratings by thier superviors (pearson correlation coefficient - .15, P=.009). The professional concludes that there must be a very strong relationship between the aptitude test and job performance. do you agree with this conclusion? why or why not?
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I would disagree with that. A correlation coefficient of 0.15 is not indicative of a strong relationship. Were it closer to 1, then that would be a different story.
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