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Is this statement true? I will put it in the comments.
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If \[\left\{ a_{n} \right\}_{n=1}^{\infty}\] converges, then it is guaranteed that \[\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}a_{n}\] converges?
Yes, a series necessarily converges if its sequences of partial sums, ie the sequence you describe, converges. More formal language is available here: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Convergent_series
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