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can someone please help me. The fraction 1 - 1/a over 1 - 1/a^2 is equal to a) a^2 over a - 1 b) a over a-1 c) a^2 over a + 1 d) a over a + 1
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d. a over (a+1)
can you please explain to me why?
(and actually, whoever made up the problem should have added ", assuming a not equal to 1" to (d))
Sure.
that's how it is written on the textbook.
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Mult. top and bott. of orig fraction by a^2 to get
(a^2-a)/(a^2-1)
Bottom factors to (a+1)(a-1). The (a-1) cancels (top and bottom).
Leaving a/(a+1).
got it. thank you. :)
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