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A salesman has a 46% sale at first stop, 46% sales at second stop, and 30% sale at both stop. What are the odds of him making a sale only at first stop?
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does this mean he has a 46% chance of making a sale at the first stop?
if so odd are 4 to 21
how did u get that?
46+46-30
Is the probability of first stop+probability of second stop (taking in to account both stops)
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|dw:1333907530203:dw| I think.
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