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Just wondering about the concepts shouldn't you be able to use greens theorem to derive the polar conversion for double integrals?
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\[\int\limits_{\alpha}^{\beta}\int\limits_{a}^{b}f(rcos \theta, r \sin \theta)r dr d \theta\]
why wouldn't you be able to create this from green's theorem using x=rcos0 and y =rsin0
You should probably ask this question in maths group
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