Ask your own question, for FREE!
Mathematics
OpenStudy (ajprincess):

plzzz help. prove (p→q)∧(r→q) = (pvr)→q

OpenStudy (jamesj):

First step: how do you write (p→q) as an logical expression that does not use the implication symbol → ?

OpenStudy (ajprincess):

|dw:1338105778405:dw|

OpenStudy (jamesj):

~pvq or ~(p^~q), right So, rewrite now both sides of your expression using this rule and see what you get.

OpenStudy (jamesj):

(p→q)∧(r→q) = (~p v q) ^ (~r v q) -- (*) and (pvr)→q = (~(pvr) v q) -- (**) So you need now just to show the two right-hand side expressions of (*) and (**) are equivalent.

OpenStudy (ajprincess):

Nw I get t. when I take vq out I will get (~p^~r) which is equal to (~(pvr)vq)

OpenStudy (jamesj):

right

OpenStudy (ajprincess):

Thanxxxx a lot.

Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Latest Questions
hhanan: Can some one read this and tell me if it is missing anything
14 seconds ago 5 Replies 0 Medals
Daboyjaylen8: Help
11 minutes ago 6 Replies 0 Medals
Katrin369: Can someone please help? I will post the question below.
2 minutes ago 29 Replies 2 Medals
Katrin369: Can someone please help?
10 minutes ago 4 Replies 0 Medals
SaltTheLoser: Is this correct
30 minutes ago 3 Replies 2 Medals
SaltTheLoser: Is this correct?
48 minutes ago 4 Replies 1 Medal
TETSXPREME: i need help XD
46 minutes ago 9 Replies 2 Medals
rxcklesskaisher: solving equations
1 hour ago 18 Replies 0 Medals
Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!