plzzz help. prove (pâ†’q)âˆ§(râ†’q) = (pvr)â†’q
First step: how do you write (pâ†’q) as an logical expression that does not use the implication symbol â†’ ?
~pvq or ~(p^~q), right So, rewrite now both sides of your expression using this rule and see what you get.
(pâ†’q)âˆ§(râ†’q) = (~p v q) ^ (~r v q) -- (*) and (pvr)â†’q = (~(pvr) v q) -- (**) So you need now just to show the two right-hand side expressions of (*) and (**) are equivalent.
Nw I get t. when I take vq out I will get (~p^~r) which is equal to (~(pvr)vq)
Thanxxxx a lot.