Question

plzzz help.
prove (p→q)∧(r→q) = (pvr)→q

Answer 1

First step: how do you write (p→q) as an logical expression that does not use the implication symbol → ?

Answer 2

~pvq or ~(p^~q), right

So, rewrite now both sides of your expression using this rule and see what you get.

Answer 3

(p→q)∧(r→q) = (~p v q) ^ (~r v q) -- (*)
and
(pvr)→q = (~(pvr) v q) -- (**)

So you need now just to show the two right-hand side expressions of (*) and (**) are equivalent.

Answer 4

Nw I get t. when I take vq out I will get (~p^~r) which is equal to (~(pvr)vq)

Answer 5

right

Answer 6

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