Kitty is having trouble understanding mathematic induction proofs because she doesn’t understand inductive hypthesis. If we can assume it is true for “k”, she asks why can’t we assume it is true for “n” and be done with it? After all, a variable is a variable! Write a response to Kitty to clear up her confusion

Question

anonymous · Answer

maybe cuzz one variable is depandant and the other independant? :P maybe idk.

parthkohli · Answer

See, k stands for "constant" most of the time. n is a variable. k is a constant represented by a letter. We use k because it is standard. This means that the statement we're proving applies to all the constants.

alexwee123 · Answer

what's a standard again?