Question

Let \(\Large f(x) = log(1-x)\)

b) Show that the formula for the power series holds analogously for \(\Large k=0\) (although the functions \(\Large f^{(0)}(x)=f(x)\) and \(\Large f^{(k)}(x)\) for \(\Large k > 0 \) are quite different).

Answer 1

wait i need to edit question, it does not looks good