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OpenStudy (anonymous):
Injective (1-1 functions) If we have 2 functions f and g, and f:B->C and g:A->B, how to disprove the following claim: If f is injective, then g(f(x)) is injective. Thanks!
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jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):
Here's a diagram that might help |dw:1344042028480:dw| We have 3 sets with 3 items in each set
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