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for any two events X and Y, P(X/Y)=1-P(Y/X) True or False?
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seems unlikely, we can try one and see
what is true is that \(P(A^c)=1-P(A)\) but \[P(A|B)=\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)}\] and similarly \[P(B|A)=\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(A)}\] but one is not one minus the other
so it's FALSE
is this set theory or stats? im confused
yes, it is false
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