Question

If\[e = \lim_{n \to \infty} \left({1 + {1 \over n}}\right)^n \]Then is this true?\[\lim_{x \to 0} {e^x - 1 \over x} = 1 \]

Answer 1

yup.

Answer 2

Thanks, I was a little confused.

Answer 3

u know L'Hospital's rule?

Answer 4

Not really... just started with Calculus.

Answer 5

ok,wanna know?

Answer 6

Just a second. I'd make a new post about it after another one.