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Mathematics 11 Online
OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

why is \(p \vee T \equiv T\)? can it be proven?

OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

aside from stating "domination law" of course

OpenStudy (swissgirl):

not familiar with this cant help u :(

OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

i assume i do this... \[\huge \begin{array}{c|c|c|} \hline p &T &p \vee T\\ \hline\\T & T &T \\ F &T&T\end{array}\]

OpenStudy (lgbasallote):

Q.E.D

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