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Does there exist an intuition / proof of the Collatz Conjecture?
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no there is no proof
How was this conjecture even introduced then?
1) http://alienryderflex.com/collatz_analysis.shtml 2) http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Goldbach's_conjecture
Hmm... how was this conjecture derived?
Wasn't it that you reach 1?
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Prove that there exists no number "n" such that if n is even u divide it by 2 and if n is odd u multiply it by 3 and add 1...... And After this u will get another number n_1 Now, continue the same process and this gives n_2 ........ And so on until n=n_a .
How to prove that?
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