Prove that [r ∨ (q ∧ (~r →~p))] ≡ r ∧ (p∨ ~q) by using a series of logical equivalences.

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unklerhaukus · Answer

attachment

anonymous · Answer

unklerhaukus please solve the question , i am very confused to apply formulas in it

anonymous · Answer

@UnkleRhaukus  please solve the question , i am very confused to apply formulas in it

unklerhaukus · Answer

maybe look at the LHS first and apply the second form of the distributive law

anonymous · Answer

waiting for complete solution also. i will rate then full :)

unklerhaukus · Answer

i'm not giving you the full solution , that's not the OpenStudy way

anonymous · Answer

i am expecting form others

unklerhaukus · Answer

show your working and we can guide your next step

anonymous · Answer

i have less time, so need urgent solution :(

anonymous · Answer

1. Use contraposition
2. Use De Morgan's Law

anonymous · Answer

Well, you won't get the full solution unless you show your attempt, 'less time' is definitely not a valid excuse here.