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Is The inverse of F(x) a function?
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HALP PLEASE
Anyone
You're going to have to be a little more specific with what F(x) is :)
that's what my question states is it true ?
that's all that my question says
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depends entirely on what \(F\) is
my only options are true or false :/
The question is not by this simplicity ! Not any function has an inverse ! But if it has an inverse, then the inverse is naturally a function also !
im going to go with true on this one
Check this out, http://openstudy.com/users/australopithecus#/updates/51b722cee4b05b167ed47a12
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