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let\[f:X \rightarrow Y\] be an arbitrary function and let \[A \subseteq X , B \subseteq Y\]
this is a thorem .....
i guess
what should we do
wats the question
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How is i that \[f(A) \subseteq B\] if and only if \[A \subseteq f ^{-1}(B)\]
Is it not \[X = f ^{-1}(Y)\] ?
yeah you are right thats why i removed it,the thing is \[f^{-1}(Y)\] reverses the process \[f(X)\] does |dw:1375043099043:dw|
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