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OpenStudy (anonymous):
"DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis II. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis II" - How is possible? If DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and II, then should the DNA content after meiosis II be half the haploid number? I know that it's not, but I don't understand how it's possible seeing as DNA content is halved twice!
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