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how is cot inverse x = to tan inverse 1/x
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anyone got something?
ok do you know tan x = 1/cot x ?
yeah
cot inv x = tan inv 1/x means we need to prove tan (cot inv x) = 1/x
tan (cot inv x) = 1/ cot(cot inv x) and what is cot (cot inv x) = ... ?
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1/x? lol
cot (cot inv x) is just x! :)
this is the first trig stuff we come across all year still getting warmed up ahah
okk. so did u get how cot inverse x = to tan inverse 1/x ?
question what did you do to set tan(cot inv x)=1/cot(cot inv x)
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tan theta = 1/ cot theta
theta = cot inv x
more doubts?
no that makes sense...
thanks
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welcome ^_^
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