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A man is convicted of a crime but did not have an attorney to represent him at his trial. This could have happened for a number of reasons. Which explanation would be unconstitutional according to Gideon v. Wainwright? if the man was unable to afford an attorney and the court refused to provide one if the man chose to not use his right to an attorney and represent himself if the man was insane and no attorney would choose to represent him if the man was unaware that he had the right to be represented by an attorney
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@Destinymasha
i think B?
-EVERYONE HAS THE RIGHT TO AN ATTORNEY, RIGHT?
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