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Linear Algebra Question true or false and why...
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any help would be great!
Let \(u\neq v \in R^n\) , since \(T_1\) is not one-to-one, then supposed \(T_1u=T_1v\in R^m \) \(T_2:R^m\rightarrow R^k\) \(T_2\) sends elements from \(R^m\) to \(R^k\) \(T_2oT_1~u=T_20T_1~v=(T_2oT_1)~u=(T_2oT_1)~v\) \(u\neq v\) but \((T_2oT_1)~u=(T_2oT_1)~v\) that shows \(T_2 ~o T_1\) is not one to one.
that would've been a pain to type, thank you for taking the time!!
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