Question

Explain whether the following statement is a valid definition: “A 150° angle is an obtuse angle.” Use the converse, biconditional, and at least one Euler diagram to support your answer.

I already know that the defanition is false. I have also finished the converse of the statement as well as the biconditional, I am just confused as to how to approach this question using an Euler diagram. Any help is appreciated.

Answer 1

lol i tried

Answer 2

thanks