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OpenStudy (anonymous):
Anyone got anything for this? Show that the statement (~p v q)^(p^~q) is a logical contraindication by any means
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OpenStudy (anonymous):
by any means which means you can use truth tables.
OpenStudy (anonymous):
Yeah, I thought as much, just not that grand at making them.
OpenStudy (anonymous):
p q F F F T T F T T
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