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OpenStudy (anonymous):

L'Hopital

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[\frac{ 2-2\cos( \pi x) }{ (x-1)^2 }\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I wanted to know do I have to change the form so I get 0/0 or can I take the derivative as is?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

sorry limit as x approaches 1

OpenStudy (anonymous):

I know with direct substitution it is 1/0 but in order to do L'hopital it has to be in the form of 0/0 or infinity/infinity right?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

correction with direct substitution it is 4/0

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Multiply this by \[\frac{1+cos(\pi x)}{1+cos(\pi x)}\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

then you will get a limit 0/0

OpenStudy (anonymous):

and just apply L'Hospital

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok thank you

OpenStudy (anonymous):

np

OpenStudy (anonymous):

If you plug in \(1\), you get the \(0/0\) form, so you can differentiate it as is.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Hmmm, I guess it isn't an indeterminate form as it is, weird.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

@M4thM1nd can I take the ln of the imit to make it easier to differentiate?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

because when I did l'hopital the derivative was still 0/0

OpenStudy (anonymous):

well if: \[L = lim_{x \rightarrow 1} \frac{2*(1-cos(\pi x))}{(x-1)^2}\], you can take the ln() of both sides

OpenStudy (anonymous):

that's not the case here. Is there any other way I can clean it up to make it faster or is it just going to be a long differentiation?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i don't see other way of making this faster

OpenStudy (anonymous):

alright thank you

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Actually it is solved very fast, just two differentiation

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