Why was there no king from 1649 to 1660?

James I was imprisoned.
Charles I was executed and Parliament took control.
Charles II was hidden in France by the Jacobites.
James II was driven out of the country.

Question

Why was there no king from 1649 to 1660?

James I was imprisoned.
Charles I was executed and Parliament took control.
Charles II was hidden in France by the Jacobites.
James II was driven out of the country.

lightskin · Answer

i think it is James II

anonymous · Answer

The interregnum of England, Scotland, and Ireland started with the execution of Charles I in January 1649 (September 1651 in Scotland) and was decisively ended in July 1660 when his son Charles II was restored to the thrones of the three realms, although he had been already acclaimed king in Scotland since 1650

anonymous · Answer

So, B. Charles I was executed and Parliament took control is CORRECT