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Mean value theorem question
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To show c in (a,b) yes you can show that c>a and c<b.
why the mvt?
Or rolle's theorem. I always confuse between the two lol.
it is obvious that \(\frac{x}{1+x^2}<\frac{1}{2}\) if \(x\geq 1\) right?
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How would I go about doing that though? Kinda stuck...
Yes this is true.
What next though?
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