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Why would a modernist author write about the consequences of greed when an author from the age of reason wrote a book with a similar theme?
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A) to emphasize how authors are unable to come up with new ideas in fiction writing B) to sell more copies of her book with a topic she knows is popular C) to ensure that no other modernist can write a book about the consequences of greed D) to put an end to the literary discussion about the consequences of greed E) to show how the consequences have changed or remained the same over time
is this math?
oh snap! its english! haha i'll go post it in the english section
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