Question

Are the two statements linked in any way ?
1....
If f(x) is derivable in [a,b] then there exists at least one c€(a,b) such that
f'(c)=f(b)-f(a)/b-a

2..Lim (x+2)arc tan (x+2) - x arc tanx
Where x tends to infinity is equal to π..

Answer 1

My ans is they are not ...
Bt they say statement 2 is coreect explanation for statement 1