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Are the two statements linked in any way ? 1.... If f(x) is derivable in [a,b] then there exists at least one c€(a,b) such that f'(c)=f(b)-f(a)/b-a 2..Lim (x+2)arc tan (x+2) - x arc tanx Where x tends to infinity is equal to π..
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My ans is they are not ... Bt they say statement 2 is coreect explanation for statement 1
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