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This is not a math question, it's more of like a common sense question I guess. But would you say these two questions are exactly the same? Like they ask the same thing? Or no? I would do this in History but no one was helping me over there. Which Muslim empire's government encouraged religious and cultural toleration? Under which Muslim empire were people most likely to experience cultural and religious toleration?
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The Ottoman Empire's government was consistently tolerant. The Mughal Empire's government waxed and waned between tolerance under some rulers and intolerance under others. The Safavid Empire was consistently intolerant.
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