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That would be false It is mostly used in non-right triangle trigonometry since it is consistent instead of using right triangle rules
It would have to follow pythagorean theorem to be right
So, the answer to the question that asks "suppose a triangle has sides 1,1 and 1. Which of the following must be true?" is "the triangle in question is not a right triangle?
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The law of cosines can be written as \(c^2 = a^2 + b^2 − 2ab cos(C)\) or \(cos(C) = \large \frac{a^2 + b^2 − c^2}{2ab}\) So you can have 2 sides and 1 angle, or all 3 sides
So, does that mean the answer is c?
No I said 2 sides and 1 angle, not 2 angles and 1 side
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