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Both the Ottoman and Mughal empires absorbed religious influences from other cultures. forced non-Muslims to convert to Islam. offered high positions to Hindus and Sikhs. ruled their territories until the early 1900s.
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I'm not sure about the Ottoman empire but the Mughal empire forced non-Muslims and Sikhs to convert to Islam, and although everyone knew Hindostani languages only Urdu was allowed to be spoken and written at noble levels; Hindi was a lower-level language at that time. The Mughal Empire did consider Hindus and other non-Muslims in their governance though. But they were not influenced by other cultures and forced conversion of Hindus to Muslims. Hopefully that should eliminate option A and C. Now what do you think?
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