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Why would a modernist author write about the consequences of greed when an author from the age of reason wrote a book with a similar theme?
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Maybe the modern author wrote it to get the message through better,,, people before explained things differently and understood things differently they have a different understanding of things that some people in modern time wont understand so by writing about the same theme, it just helps the theme or the thing that the author wants people to know, which is `greed isn't a good thing`, they want them to know that and have an understanding of it. That's the only logical explanation I could think of.
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