Ask
your own question, for FREE!

Mathematics

OpenStudy (anonymous):

need help with Lagrange Multipliers. it states that F(x)=f(x)-lambda*g(x)=0 , since g(x) is equilvalent to 0, does this mean that f(x) is 0?

8 years ago
OpenStudy (anonymous):

topic close

8 years ago
Can't find your answer?
Make a FREE account and ask your own question, OR you can help others and earn volunteer hours!

Latest Questions

Lisamgarcia:
How was Twain a trusty narrator in his reminiscence from Uncle Tom's Cabin

7 hours ago
0 Replies
0 Medals

ccharles301:
You will then write a one- to two-paragraph summary describing your chosen type of biotechnology.

9 hours ago
1 Reply
2 Medals

Ashlynn1:
Find the image of DEF under the translation of (x,y) -> (x+7,y+2)

11 hours ago
3 Replies
0 Medals

zarkam21:
1. Define and describe the features of mood disorders such as: Major Depressive Disorder, Persistent Depressive Disorder, Premenstrual Dysphoric Disorder, C

10 hours ago
6 Replies
2 Medals

nal23:
Which sentence contains a participial phrase with an embedded clause? Running, giraffes look like something that was designed in a bad dream.

19 hours ago
0 Replies
0 Medals

Ballery1:
can someone algebraically show me how to plug and chug for every x value into the function? i'm having hard time dealing with power functions.

15 hours ago
271 Replies
4 Medals