Mathematics
OpenStudy (anonymous):

How to prove that the limit (as x goes to infinity) of a function's inverse (1/f(x)) cannot be zero, if the function's (f(x)) limit is zero?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

assume that the function f is something trivial like$1/x^{2}$ then what about the inverse? it becomes nothing more than $x^{2}$ what is the limit then of the inverse? $\infty$

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