Ask your own question, for FREE!
Mathematics 10 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

lim as x>inf of cos(1/x). The answer is 1, but I can't figure out why...?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

well, in case anyone's wondering, it's because as 1/x goes to infinity, its limit is 0, and cos (0) = 1.

Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!
Can't find your answer? Make a FREE account and ask your own questions, OR help others and earn volunteer hours!

Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!