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Mathematics 16 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

Is it possible to find a function f(x) such that f(f^-1(B)) does NOT equal B? where in f:X-->Y, B is a subset of Y?

OpenStudy (yuki):

intuitively that should never happen ... because f^-1: Y -->X

OpenStudy (yuki):

and f(x) is defined for all x in X

OpenStudy (yuki):

maybe you can do a proof by contradiction?

OpenStudy (yuki):

maybe you can do a proof by contradiction?

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