would the simplified form be -1/2? simplify by removing factors of 1 p^2-1/(p+1)^2
the principle you are looking to use here is the difference of squares. lets look at the top part. the difference of squares says that if you have a^2-b^2 then it can be factored into (a+b)(a-b) since the middle terms will cancel out. using this on your equation we get: (p-1)(p+1)/(p+1)^2 now you can cancel one of the (p+1)'s from both the numerator and denominator, giving you: (p-1)/(p+1)
wow I looked at this all wrong lol
lol, that's ok, it's a hard one to spot. especially when they use the number 1, since it is it's own square. they were just trying to throw you for a loop, but now you know better!! win!
they got nothin on you now! lol
lol thank you!
no prob!! :)
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