Question

f(x) has an inverse function g(x). then f(g(x))=? and g(f(x))= ?

Answer 1

its not necesary

Answer 2

It is x i beleive

Answer 3

for both

Answer 4

apply a simple logic f*f^-1 =1 and u are left with x..
but thats not the method just a way to remember

Answer 5

u get it jasleen?

Answer 6

its x, because f(f-1(x))=x and f-1(f(x)) is also equal to x

Answer 7

If g(x) is the inverse of f(x), then f(g(x))=x and g(f(x))=x

Answer 8

you guys are telling the same thing what i told lol

Answer 9

UNDERSTOOD :D