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Mathematics 7 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

True or False? If f is one-to-one, then the inverse of f(x)=1/f(x)

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

this is false, for example, the function f(x)=x^3 has the inverse x=cube root of x

jimthompson5910 (jim_thompson5910):

but clearly, the inverse of f(x) is not 1/f(x) since 1/f(x) does not equal the cube root of x

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