need help with problem
For the BADLIM, we can pick this function as an example: \[f(x)=\frac{1}{x}\] So, for every M > 0 we choose, there exists a value x > 0 (and in our case we will pick this one:) \[x=\frac{1}{M+1}\] so, plugging this x-value into the function: \[f(\frac{1}{M+1})=M+1 > M\] The conditions of BADLIM are satisfied. However, what's "wrong" here, is that as the values of M we choose increase, the range of values of the corresponding x's we can choose decreases and we gets closer and closer to 0, instead of growing away from 0 towards infinity. also, we know that \[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{x} = 0\] And the below is wrong (even though it satisfies the definition of BADLIM): \[\lim_{x \rightarrow \infty} \frac{1}{x} = \infty\]
Thanks!
Join our real-time social learning platform and learn together with your friends!