Assest the validity of the following statement: For all integrals m & n with m is opposite of -n & +n, and integral (cosm(t)cosn(t)dt)=0 from -pi to pi ???

Question

valpey · Answer

This statement is probably true in math class, but I'm pretty sure it wouldn't pass grammatical muster. 

Nonetheless, cosine functions are centered and balanced at t=0 and the product of two balanced functions should also be balanced so any integral of any product of an unshifted set of cosine functions ranging from -x to +x should evaluate to zero.