Suppose that a function f(x) is defined for all x in [-1,1]. Can anything be said about the existence of limf(x) as x approaches 0. Give reasons for your answer.

Would this be yes there is a limit?

Question

Suppose that a function f(x) is defined for all x in [-1,1]. Can anything be said about the existence of limf(x) as x approaches 0. Give reasons for your answer.

Would this be yes there is a limit?

anonymous · Answer

I feel like there would be a lmit as x approaches 0 from the right, and left but cant garuntee they are the same right?

anonymous · Answer

that f(x) is defined in that interval does not mean the limit exists, if anything, one could say that the right hand and left hand limits exist

anonymous · Answer

Exactly what i was thinking. thanks mik wind