Question

Anyone know if I can say ~p v r v ~q v r is equivalent to (~p v ~q) v r? Trying to make it equal to p -->(q v r)

Answer 1

v is associative and commutative. Also r v r = r. (I'm assuming v is union, or the OR boolean operator.)

Answer 2

So, yes, they are equivalent. But I don't think they're equivalent to the implication you proposed.