Did Polk provoke the Texas-boundary conflict in order to gain California or expand slavery, as war opponents like Lincoln charged?
No, the Mexican American war happened because Mexican soldiers murdered American soldiers in cold blood on the disputed Texas-Mexico border
Actually, moving troops into a disputed border is a form of provocation. There is no answer to this question.
Yes. Mexican troops entered the US and killed American troops--which is an act of war.
No. American troops entered the disputed territory, prompting shootings. Polk just sold it off as Mexicans killing Americans on American soil which in fact was not the case at the time. This is why Lincoln makes the "show me the spot" demand.
Its still an act of war no matter how you slice it. Mexico was on the verge of civil war at the time, and there were more Americans living in the Mexican territory (especially Texas and California) than Mexican citizens. This territory was certain to become US territory.
In addition, Mexican troops did indeed cross the Rio Grande (The internationally recognized border between Mexico and the US) and kill American Troops. That is an act of war and it is one of the principle causes of the Mexican American War.
True, however that territory was still under Mexico's rule at the time, even if it was destined to become part of America later. In addition, it was the US that first sent troops into the disputed area. From the Mexican stand point, the US invaded Mexico without its consent and this too is an act of war. The act would be on the US declaring war rather than the other way around. As I've said before, this question has no answer. Depending on who you ask either could have declared war on the other first.
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