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Mathematics 17 Online
OpenStudy (anonymous):

satellite, can you help me with this proof of Fermat's last theorem?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

Part of Proof: Consider two cases, z0 even and z0 odd. If z0 is even, then x0 and y0 are odd. But then x0 + y0 and x0 − y0 are both even. Let 2p = x0 + y0 and 2q = x0 − y0. Then x0 =p+q and y0 = p-q. It follows from gcd(x0, y0) = 1 that gcd(p, q) = 1. Parity arguments show that p not≡ q (mod 2). Lastly, z0^3 = 2p(p^2 + 3q^2). Summarizing, there exist p and q so that: (a) p and q are positive (b) gcd(p, q) = 1 (c) p not≡ q (mod 2) (d) 2p(p^2 + 3q^2) is a cube Answer the following: 1. Use gcd(x0, y0) = 1 to prove that gcd(p, q) = 1. 2. Prove that p not≡ q (mod 2). 3. Prove that z0^3 = 2p(p^2 + 3q^2). Note x0 = x not, y0 = y not, z0 = z not

OpenStudy (anonymous):

you are taxing my feeble brain. let me get a piece of paper

OpenStudy (anonymous):

lol ty man

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok i got the first one suppose gdc(p,q) = d > 1 i.e. d divides p and q then d divides p + q and d divides p - q so d divides x0 = p+ q and d divides y0 = p - q contradicting the assumption that gcd (x0,y0)=1

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok looks good

OpenStudy (anonymous):

"parity argument" is a fancy way of saying that one is even and the other is odd that is clear yes?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i think so ya

OpenStudy (anonymous):

p not≡ q (mod 2) well there are only two possibilities mod 2, either 0 or 1. so all this is saying is that one is even and other is odd

OpenStudy (anonymous):

if they are both even, then p + q and p - q are both even, and therefore x0 and y0 are both even, but gcd(x0,y0)= 1 so they cannot both be even

OpenStudy (anonymous):

similarly if they are both odd, then p + q and p - q are both even, same contradiction as before so one is even and the other is odd

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok, one sec brb

OpenStudy (anonymous):

i will let you figure out why p and q are both positive. i think you have wolog x0>y0

OpenStudy (anonymous):

and the last part is algebra. straight up compute \[x_0^3+y_0^3=(p+q)^3+(p-q)^3=2p(p^2 + 3q^2)\]

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok tyvm can i ask you another question?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

what if z0 is odd? prove: a) gcd(p,q) = 1 b) p not≡ q (mod 2) c) 2p(p^2 + 3q^2) is a cube

OpenStudy (anonymous):

last part is just algebra. same as before. you have \[x_0^3+y_0^3=(p+q)^3+(p-q)^3=2p(p^2 + 3q^2)\] by algebra

OpenStudy (anonymous):

and as before if z^3 is odd, and z^3 = x^3 + y^3 then one of x^3 and y^3 is even and one is odd. since the sum of an even and an odd number is odd.

OpenStudy (anonymous):

meaning one of x,y is even and the other is odd. so as before one of p,q is even and one is odd

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oh wait that may be wrong let me think a second

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok what are p and q if z^3 is odd?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

oh i see it works the same way

OpenStudy (anonymous):

\[x_0+y_0=2p+1\] \[x_0-y_0=2q-1\] \[x_0=p+q\] \[y_0=p-q\] as before?

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ya i think so

OpenStudy (anonymous):

this is fermat's last theorem in the case n = 3 right? not the real one. n = 4 is easier

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ya its case 3

OpenStudy (anonymous):

we did case 4 in class

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ok i think it is the same argument as before. nothing has changed. gcd(p,q)= 1 because otherwise x and y have common factors

OpenStudy (anonymous):

and like before if they are both even then so is x and y and if they are both odd then x and y are both even so it is identical to the one before if i am not mistaken. check it but i think it is right and now i must go good luck!

OpenStudy (anonymous):

ty :)

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